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Model Test Paper—6 (For UPSC CSE Prelims 2026)

Attempt Model Test Papers in General Studies Paper-1 (For UPSC CSE Prelims 2026)

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Spectrum Books Private Ltd. has obtained the information contained in this test from sources considered to be reliable. However, Spectrum Books Private Ltd. or the authors do not undertake to guarantee the accuracy or completeness of the information, and, as such, are not responsible for any error, omission or damage arising from the use of the information. The authors and publishers are supplying information, but are not offering professional services.

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1. Consider the following protocols:

  1. The Protocol against the Illicit Manufacturing of and Trafficking in Firearms, their Parts and Components, and Ammunition.
  2. The Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea, and Air.
  3. The Protocol to Prevent, Suppress and Punish Trafficking in Persons, especially Women and Children.

Which of the protocols mentioned above are the supplementary protocols to the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNCTOC)?



2. Intelligent Grievance Monitoring System (IGMS) 2.0, launched by the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG), is developed by



3. Consider the following statements with respect to the Asian Development Bank (ADB):

  1. The first Ministerial Conference on Asian Economic Cooperation in 1963 paved the way for the establishment of ADB in 1966.
  2. The ADB headquarters is located in the city of Beijing, China.
  3. China is its largest shareholder, followed by Japan.
  4.  The institution consists of a total of 49 members from all regions.
    How many statements given above are correct?




4. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Project Mariana successfully tested cross-border trading and settlement of wholesale central bank digital currencies (WCBDCs).
Statement-II: The Bank for International Settlements (BIS) collaborated on Project Mariana, together with the Reserve Bank of India, the Monetary Authority of Singapore, and the Swiss National Bank.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 



5. Consider the following statements with respect to Project Udbhav:

  1. It is a collaborative initiative of the Indian Army and the United Service Institution of India (USI).
  2. The project aims to combine ancient wisdom with modern military practices to develop a comprehensive approach to tackle contemporary security issues.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?



6. The Defence Acquisition Council has approved the proposal to acquire MQ-9B Sea Guardian and Sky Guardian from the United States. The MQ-9B is a type of 



7. Consider the following statements regarding the constitutional provisions for the welfare of senior citizens in India:

  1. Article 51 obliges the state to make effective provisions for old age people.
  2. The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution mentions framing of policies on old age pension and other social securities.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?



8. The largest freshwater lake in the United Kingdom, which supplies half of Belfast’s drinking water and 40 per cent of all the water in Northern Ireland is also the site of Europe’s largest commercial wild eel fishery. Sand-dredging has been a business on this lake for more than a century. The catchment region is home to a wide variety of animals, including barn owls and curlews. The lake is designated as a special protection area under the Ramsar convention.
Which of the following is the correct description of the above paragraph?



9. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The UrbanShift Forum initiative is part of the Global Environment Facility and the United Nations Environment Programme, and it aims to promote sustainable urban planning and development in cities across Asia, Africa, and Latin America. 
Statement-II: UrbanShift Forum is a transformative initiative that brings together political and technical representatives from participating cities and countries to exchange knowledge and collaborate on urban challenges.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 



10. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The ageing index measures the ratio of elderly individuals (60+) to children (under 15) with the score increasing as the population ages.
Statement-II: In India, the ageing index indicates that central and north-eastern regions have a younger age group compared to the southern and western regions.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 



11. Scientists from the Zoological Survey of India have discovered a new species from West Bengal called Pterygotrigla intermedica. It is a



12. L.69 is a group of developing countries, formed with the aim of



13. Consider the following pairs:
    Statue   Located in
  1. Statue of Oneness   Karnataka
  2. Statue of Prosperity   Madhya Pradesh
  3. Statue of Equality   Telangana
  4. Statue of Peace   Rajasthan
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

14. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Levitation is a kind of earthquake prevention technique, typically applied to stand-alone houses.
Statement-II: Under the levitation technique, the structure rests on a deflated airbag in normal times, but during an earthquake, a compressor forces air into the bag, raising the home a few centimeters above the ground.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 



15. India held 2+2 dialogue with the US in November 2023. Which are the other countries with whom India holds a 2 + 2 dialogue?

  1. United Kingdom
  2. Australia
  3. Japan
  4. Russia
  5. China

Select the correct answer using the code given below:



16. Consider the following statements with respect to Katchatheevu island:

  1. It was once a part of the Ramnad Zamindari, established in 1605 by the Nayak dynasty of Madurai.
  2. The uninhabited island lies in the Palk Strait between India and Sri Lanka.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?



17. In 2023, India became the third nation to report Tilapia Parvovirus (TiPV) after China and Thailand.  The first case of TiPV reported in Tamil Nadu affected the species of



18. In astrophysics, the Chandrasekhar limit refers to



19. A deuterium nucleus consists of



20. Consider the following statements with respect to Taxol:

  1. Taxol is an FDA-approved microtubule-stabilising drug used for treating ovarian, breast, and lung cancers.
  2. The drug is derived from the bark of the Pacific yew tree, which is native to North America.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?



21. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Radio does not work in a moving train unless aerial is put outside the window.
Statement-II: The train compartment acts as a hollow metallic cylinder, which blocks radio-waves from entering, and does not allow a radio to work.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 



22. The ‘TOI-4603b’ is a type of



23. Consider the following statements with respect to the Summer Olympics 2028:

  1. The 2028 Summer Olympics is going to be held in the United States of America.
  2. Cricket has been included for the first time in the 2028 season.
  3. Other sports included are baseball/softball, flag football, lacrosse, and squash.

How many of the statements given above are correct?



24. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: ‘Jus ad bellum’ is the legal framework that governs the use of armed force by states.
Statement-II: ‘Jus in bello’ regulates the armed conflict conduct, by protecting and assisting all the victims, ensuring their protection and assistance to the greatest extent possible.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 



25. Which is the first country to achieve the gold tier status from the World Health Organization (WHO) for a significant progress in eliminating Hepatitis C?



26. Consider the following species:

  1. Chipmunks
  2. Dormice
  3. Hamsters
  4. Bats
  5. Snails

How many of the species mentioned above undergo hibernation?



27. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: In a circular motion, linear velocity of an object is not constant.
Statement-II: In circular motion, the direction of motion changes continuously.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 



28. Consider the following pairs:
    Earth origin hypothesis   Given by
  1. Nebular Hypothesis   Marquis de Laplace
  2. Collision Hypothesis   G.L. Leclerc and Comte de Buffon
  3. Tidal Hypothesis   James Jeans and Harold Jeffrey
  4. Supernova Hypothesis   Fred Hoyle
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

29. Consider the following periods:

  1. Devonian
  2. Jurassic
  3. Cretaceous
  4. Silurian
  5. Carboniferous

Which of the following is the correct order of the geological time scale of periods?



30. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Convectional currents are generated by radioactive elements causing thermal differences in the mantle portion, and could exist throughout the entire mantle. 
Statement-II: Scientists discarded the continental drift theory due to convectional current theory to explain the issue of force.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 



31. If the Earth’s axis had not been inclined,

  1. temperature distribution would have been uniform.
  2. days and nights would not have occurred.
  3. seasons would not have occurred.
  4. poles would not have continuous day.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:



32. A person sets off from Alaska on Tuesday and reaches New Zealand the next day, which will be 



33. Which of the given factors influence ocean currents?

  1. Coriolis force
  2. Local winds
  3. Waves
  4. Continent shape

Select the correct answer using the code given below:



34. Which one of the following straits is nearest to the International Date Line?



35. Consider the following mountain ranges:

  1. Ladakh Range    
  2. Karakoram Range
  3. Greater Himalayas Range
  4. Zaskar Range

Which of the following is the correct sequence of these ranges from South to North?



36. Consider the following statements:

  1. Chikmagalur is well-known for sugar production.
  2. Mandya is well-known as a coffee-producing region.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?



37. Consider the following pairs:
    Literary work   Written by
  1. Tarikh-i-Alai    Gulbadan Begum 
  2. Tarikh-i-Mubarakshahi   Yahya-bin-Ahmad 
  3. Tarikh-i-Hind    Amir Khusrau 
  4. Humayun-nama   Al-Beruni
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

38. Which of the following are the characteristics of the Neolithic Period?

  1. They buried their dead, and erected tombs.
  2. They worshipped spirits of nature as embodied in trees and stones, and appeased them by bloody sacrifices and offerings of food and drink.
  3. They had no knowledge of the wheel for making pottery.
  4. They knew the use of fire and had started cooking.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:



39. Which of the following statements are correct with regard to the differences between Mahayanism and Hinayanism?

  1. Mahayanism placed reliance on faith and devotion in order to attain nirvana, whereas Hinayanism believed in the practice of self-culture and good deeds.
  2. Mahayanism regards the Buddha as an incarnation of God, whereas Hinayanism regards the Buddha as a man who took his last birth before he attained nirvana.
  3. The religious texts of Mahayanism were written mostly in Sanskirt, whereas those of Hinayanism were in Pali.
  4. Mahayanism believed that the highest ideal of life is to help others attain nirvana, whereas Hinayanism regarded the salvation of one’s own self as the highest ideal.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:



40. Consider the following statements:

  1. Mauryan art was influenced by Persian and Greek art.
  2. The most striking feature with regard to the pillars was their polished finish.
  3. It was influenced by Buddhism to a great extent.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct with regard to art and architecture during the Mauryan Period?



41. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding Lingayats?




42. Match List I with List II:
    List I   List II
  A. Butler Committee Report 1. Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
  B. Hartog Committee Report 2. Relationship between the Indian states and the British Crown
  C. Hunter Inquiry Committee Report 3. Working of Dyarchy as laid down in the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms
  D. Muddiman Committee Report 4. The growth of education in British India and the potentialities of its further progress
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

43. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Mahmud Ghazni targeted his attacks on temples and temple towns.
Statement-II: His main motive was to establish the superiority of Islam.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 



44. Consider the following statements with respect to Aurangzeb:

  1. He was a scholar of Muslim theology and jurisprudence.
  2. He gave the title of ‘Zarrin Qalam’ (or Kalam) to his court poet Muhammad Hussain (or Husayn).
  3. He was an accomplished Veena player.
  4. He patronised the art of calligraphy.

How many of the statements given above are correct?



45. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The foundation of the Maratha confederacy was laid during the first half of the 18th century.
Statement-II: The objective of the Maratha confederacy was to get rid of the Peshwa.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 



46. The ‘Battle of Swally’ was fought between East India Company and



47. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The most prominent figure of the Chishti order of sufis in India is Khwaja Moinuddin Chishti.
Statement-II: The Chishti sufi order is named after the town of Chisht, located near Herat in Afghanistan.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 



48. Which of the following international events influenced the course of the national movement in India before the advent of Mahatma Gandhi?

  1. Italian-Abyssinian War 
  2. Boxer Rebellion in China
  3. Revolutionary movement in Ireland
  4. Victory of Japan in the Russo-Japanese War

Select the correct answer using the code given below:



49. Which of the following may be considered as drawbacks of the early phase of the Congress activities?

  1. Confined to the educated middle classes
  2. Misplaced faith in the benevolence and fair-mindedness of the British rulers
  3. No proper understanding of the exploitative nature of British economic policies

Select the correct answer using the code given below:



50. With reference to the Nehru Report, consider the following statements:

Statement-I: In the Nehru Report, the secular character of the State was listed as a Fundamental Right.
Statement-II: The Nehru Report recommended that the redistribution of provinces should take place on a linguistic basis.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 



51. In the context of the Indian freedom struggle, the organisation of an army called ‘Bidyut Bahini’ was associated with which one of the following?



52. Which of the following statements correctly expresses the difference between preference shares and equity shares?



53. What do you understand by the term ‘Jobber’?



54. Which of the following was the main purpose of the Tarapore Committee, appointed by the Reserve Bank of India?



55. Which of the following items are included in the capital budget?

  1. Borrowing of gold from the RBI
  2. Loans received from foreign governments
  3. Expenditure on acquisition of assets like roads, buildings, machinery, etc
  4. Loans and advances granted to the states, union territory governments
  5. Transactions in the public account

Select the correct answer using the code given below:



56. Consider the following statements about the Manki-Munda system:

  1. It is a traditional system of self-governance among the Ho tribe in Jharkhand.
  2. The system is purely internal, with no sovereign authority or tax collection. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?



57. Consider the following statements with respect to foreign institutional investors (FII):

  1. It refers to entities established or incorporated outside India, investing in the financial markets of India.
  2. NRIs and persons of Indian origin are not allowed to invest in financial markets of India.
  3. RBI is the only regulating body for FII portfolio investment in India.

How many of the statements given above are correct?



58. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The committee on financial inclusion was headed by Dr C. Rangarajan.
Statement-II: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is actively promoting financial inclusion through its Basic Savings Bank Deposit Account (BSBDA).

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 



59. Consider the following options:

  1. Increase in black money
  2. Increase in government expenditure
  3. Increase in oil prices
  4. Increase in population

Which of the following are among the demand-pull factors of inflation in India?



60. The report Digital-in-Health: Unlocking the Value for Everyone is published by



61. Consider the following statements with respect to Economic Survey 2024–25:

  1. India’s services export growth surged to 6.8 per cent during FY25.
  2. India is the largest recipient of remittances in the world in 2024.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?



62. Consider the following statements with respect to India Post Payment Bank (IPPB):

  1. IPPB was established under the Department of Post, Ministry of Communication with a 100 per cent Indian government equity.
  2. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has granted a licence to the IPPB under Section 22 (1) of the RBI Act, 1934, allowing it to operate as a payments bank in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?



63. Consider the following conditions:

  1. Low unemployment rate
  2. Low market interest rate
  3. Low inflation

Which of the above-given conditions are ideal for Goldilocks scenario in economy?



64. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: SVAMITVA is a Central Sector Scheme under the Ministry of Panchayati Raj.
Statement-II: The scheme aims to establish clear property ownership in rural inhabited areas by mapping land parcels using drone and GIS technology, and providing ‘Record of Rights’ to village household owners.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 



65. Consider the following statements with respect to the National Sickle Cell Anaemia Elimination Mission:

  1. The mission was introduced with the aim to address the health challenges of sickle cell disease all over India.
  2. The mission, as a part of the National Health Mission, aims to eradicate the genetic transmission of sickle cell disease by 2047.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?



66. Under the Compacts of Free Association (COFA), the United States provide defence, financial support, and exclusive military access to vital oceanic regions. Which of the following countries have signed COFA with the US?

  1. Marshall Islands
  2. Palau
  3. Micronesia
  4. Samoa

Select the correct answer using the code given below:



67. The vision for ‘Amrit Kaal’ rests on seven guiding pillars called Saptarishi. Which of the following are part of these pillars?

  1. Inclusive development 
  2. Infrastructure and investment
  3. Green growth
  4. Youth power 
  5. Social sector

Select the correct answer using the code given below:



68. The PM-PRANAM scheme is related to



69. The National Park is a protected area in India’s Banjar sub-division of Kullu district. It is a part of the Himalaya Hotspot, one of the Conservation International’s 34 biodiversity hotspots. Established in 1984, it was officially notified as a national park in 1999. In 2014, it was awarded UNESCO World Heritage Natural Site status. It is home to 10 per cent of the world’s known plant species.
Which of the following is the correct description of the above paragraph?



70. Consider the following pairs:
    Sources of pollution   Major effect
  1. Heavy Metals   Bioaccumulation in fish
  2. Radionuclides   Raises the temperature of water; can cause growth of blue-green algae
  3. Oil pollution   Causes change in chemical and biochemical processes in the body
  4. Discharge of coolant water   Causes smothering and toxicity 
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

71. Consider the following statements:

  1. A bi-fuel vehicle runs on either natural gas or petrol/diesel.
  2. A dual-fuel vehicle runs on diesel or on diesel and natural gas simultaneously.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?



72. Higher temperatures in the lower atmosphere would lead to

  1. coral reefs flourishing.
  2. sea-level rising and inundating small islands.
  3. increase in agricultural production in the lower latitudes.
  4. increase in floods and droughts.

Select the correct answer using the code given below: 



73. Consider the following statements:

  1. Ozone disintegrates when it reacts with nitrogen oxides in the troposphere.
  2. Ozone is formed by the reaction of nitrogen oxides with hydrocarbons in the presence of sunlight.
  3. Higher amount of carbon dioxide is favourable to plant growth.
  4. Higher rate of plant growth uses carbon dioxide and lowers atmospheric temperature. 

How many of the statements given above are correct?



74. Consider the following statements:

  1. The study of tree rings gives an idea of climate change over the years.
  2. Greenhouse gases help support life on Earth.
  3. Continued warmer temperatures lead to plant growth moving towards higher elevations.
  4. With Arctic ice melting, albedo tends to increase.

How many of the statements given above are correct?



75. Which of the following are living fossil?

  1. Pinus
  2. Dryopteris
  3. Ginkgo
  4. Cycas

Select the correct answer using the code given below:



76. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Bacteria do not need sunlight to grow.
Statement-II: All bacteria prepare their food by chemosynthesis.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 



77. Consider the following statements:

  1. Mushroom is a type of fungus.
  2. Moss plants do not have true roots.
  3. Fern plants do not have true stems.
  4. Liverworts do not have true leaves or stems.

How many of the statements given above are correct?



78. An ecosystem that is species-rich, compared to one in which the range of species is limited,



79. Consider the following species:

  1. Lion-tailed Macaque 
  2. Yak 
  3. Himalayan Musk Deer 
  4. Snow Leopard
  5. Hangul 

How many of the species mentioned above have specific wildlife projects for conservation in India?



80. Consider the following statements with respect to funding in case of a disaster:

  1. Contributions to the State Disaster Response Fund (SDRF) are made by the Centre and the respective states in a 75:25 ratio for general states and 90:10 ratio for North-Eastern and Himalayan states.
  2. The assistance from the National Disaster Response Fund (NDRF) is meant only for immediate relief and rehabilitation, and not for reconstruction of assets.

Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?



81. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the reasonable restrictions placed on the Fundamental Rights?

  1. Reasonable restrictions may be imposed by the State by making law.
  2. Reasonable restrictions seek to strike a balance between the Fundamental Rights and social control.
  3. The reasonableness of the restrictions is decided by the President of India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:



82. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: There are limitations on the legislative authority of the state legislature.
Statement-II: Money bill in the state legislature can be introduced only with the president’s approval.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 



83. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The independence of a high court judge is ensured through certain provisions of the Constitution.
Statement-II: The pension of high court judges is charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 



84. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The Constitution allows the chairman of a state public service commission to take up any further employment under the union or state government.
Statement-II: The Constitution seeks to ensure the independence of the public service commission members.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 



85. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: There is no theory of ‘equality of state rights’ underlying the federal scheme in the Indian Constitution.
Statement-II: The Indian Union is not the result of any agreement between the states.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 



86. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The presidential election is not affected if a state assembly stands dissolved at the time of the election.
Statement-II: The election to the office of president must be completed within the time limit, set by the Constitution.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 



87. Consider the following statements with respect to the rights of the same-sex couples in India:

  1. They have right to marry.
  2. They have right to adopt children.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?



88. Consider the following statements:

  1. The territory of the units of the Indian federation may be altered by Parliament by a simple majority.
  2. The consent of a state legislature is necessary before Parliament redistributes its territory.
  3. The president’s recommendation is necessary for introducing a bill on redistributing territory of any state in Parliament.

How many of the statements given above are correct?



89. Consider the following:

  1. Prevention of cow slaughter
  2. Promotion of cottage industries
  3. Establishment of village panchayats
  4. Promotion of equal justice and free legal aid
  5. Uniform Civil Code

How many of the above can be termed ‘Gandhian’ among the Directive Principles of State Policy?



90. Consider the following statements with respect to the ethics committee:

  1. The committee was established in both the houses of Parliament in the year 1997.
  2. The committee is responsible for overseeing the moral conduct of its members and examining cases related to ethics and misconduct.
  3. In the Lok Sabha, the committee has 15 members, while the Rajya Sabha committee has 10 members.

Which of the statements given above are correct?



91. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Liberty refers to the freedom from restrictions on individual activities while also fostering the growth of the individual personalities.
Statement-II: The liberty envisioned in the Preamble or Fundamental Rights of the Indian Constitution is conditional, not absolute.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 



92. Consider the acts given below:

  1. The Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002
  2. The Information Technology Act, 2000
  3. The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991
  4. The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
  5. The Metro Railways (Operation and Maintenance) Act, 2002

How many of the acts given above were amended under the Jan Vishwas Act, 2023:



93. Consider the following statements with respect to the Public Accounts Committee:

  1. The chairman of the Public Accounts Committee is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
  2. A minister can be elected as a member of the committee.
  3. The committee comprises both: members of the Lok Sabha and members of the Rajya Sabha.
  4. The committee is also described as a ‘Continuous Economy Committee’.

How many of the statements given above are correct?



94. Who among the following has the right to speak and take part in the proceedings of either House of Parliament and be a member of any Parliament Committee in India but is not entitled to vote?



95. The most profound influence on the drafting of the Indian Constitution was exercised by the 



96. Which of the following rights cannot be enjoyed by the Overseas Citizen of India Cardholder (OCIC) as per the Citizenship Act, 1955?
  1. Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment
  2. Buying immovable property
  3. Being a voter under the Representation of People Act, 1950
  4. Being a member of a legislative assembly
Select the correct answer from the code given below:

97. Freedom of speech and expression are restricted in the Constitution on the grounds of

  1. defamation.
  2. contempt of court.
  3. protecting a scheduled tribe.
  4. friendly relations with foreign states.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:



98. Consider the following statements with regard to the Prime Minister of India.
 
  1. Like the British model, the prime minister has to be a member of the Lower House.
  2. The office of the prime minister has been created by the Constitution.
  3. The other ministers in the union ministry are appointed by the prime minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

99. Consider the following statements with regard to representative democracies:

  1. Parliamentary system of government is accountable to the legislature and can stay in power only as long as it enjoys the confidence of the legislature.
  2. The non-existence of a fixed executive tenure tends to make a parliamentary system unstable.
  3. With a strong central authority, the presidential system of democracy ensures separation of powers to protect citizens’ rights and prevent executive despotism. 

Which of the statements given above are correct?



100. Consider the following statements regarding proportional representation electoral system:

  1. It is designed to represent a political group in proportion to its actual voting strength in the electorate.
  2. It prevents the exclusion of minorities from the benefits of the state and gives each minority group an effective share in the political life.
  3. It encourages tactical voting, as voters vote not for the candidate they most prefer, but against the candidate they most dislike.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?



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This section will effectively update readers’ knowledge and will be of special use to candidates of the civil services examination at all levels—Prelims, Mains, and the Personality Test.

 

 

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