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Model Test Paper—5 (For UPSC CSE Prelims 2026)

Attempt Model Test Papers in General Studies Paper-1 (For UPSC CSE Prelims 2026)

You may answer the Questions in the Model Test Papers. But to access the Answers and Explanatory Notes, you are required to fill in the following details:

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Spectrum Books Private Ltd. has obtained the information contained in this test from sources considered to be reliable. However, Spectrum Books Private Ltd. or the authors do not undertake to guarantee the accuracy or completeness of the information, and, as such, are not responsible for any error, omission or damage arising from the use of the information. The authors and publishers are supplying information, but are not offering professional services.

00:00

1. Which is the most commonly used to measure money supply, also known as aggregate monetary resources?

 

2. Consider the following statements:

  1. Consumer Price Index (CPI) is the index of prices of a given basket of commodities which are bought by the representative consumer.
  2. The weights of representative goods are constant in the GDP deflator, but they differ according to the production level of each good in the CPI.
  3. The index for wholesale prices is called the Wholesale Price Index (WPI); in the USA, it is referred to as the Producer Price Index (PPI).

How many of the statements given above are correct?



3. Consider the following statements with respect to the call money market (CMM):

  1. It is an inter-bank market instrument where funds are borrowed and lent on an overnight basis.
  2. Non-bank institutions can also participate in the CMM.
  3. Collateral is required to borrow money from this market.

How many of the statements given above are correct?



4. Consider the following statements:

  1. Net national product at market cost is national income (NI).
  2. GNP = GDP + Net factor income from abroad.
  3. National disposable income = Net national product at market prices + other current transfers from the rest of the world.


Which of the statements given above are correct?





5. Consider the following statements about inflation:

  1. Headline inflation also measures the price rise in food, fuel, and all other commodities.
  2. Sporadic inflation occurs when the prices of only a few goods at few places rise.
  3. Comprehensive inflation occurs when the prices of goods decrease across the economy.
  4. Core inflation does not measure the price rise in fuel and food articles.

How many of the statements given above are correct?



6. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Marginal standing facility (MSF) rate is the penal rate at which banks can borrow from the Reserve Bank of India on an overnight basis by dipping into their statutory liquidity ratio (SLR) portfolio up to a predefined limit.
Statement-II: This acts as a safety valve to prevent unexpected shocks to the financial system’s liquidity.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 



7. Consider the following statements with respect to the monetary policy committee (MPC):

  1. The RBI establishes a MPC with the authority granted under Section 45ZB of the RBI Amendment Act, 1934.
  2. The committee consists of six members including the Governor of the RBI as the chairperson.
  3. The committee is required to meet at least thrice a year.
  4. The quorum for the meeting of the MPC is four members.

How many of the statements given above are correct?



8. Which among the following manages public debt on behalf of the central and the state governments?



9. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Green development prioritises environmental sustainability over economic and cultural considerations.
Statement-II: Inclusive growth involves revamping labour regulations, improving agricultural technologies and infrastructure, helping lagging regions catch up with advanced ones, and empowering the poor through proactive policies for fair and equitable market participation.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 



10. The concept of mixed economy envisages



11. Consider the following departments of the Indian ministries:

  1. Department of Public Enterprises
  2. Department of Revenue
  3. Department of Expenditure
  4. Department of Economic Affairs
  5. Department of Investment and Public Asset Management

Which of the departments given above come under the Ministry of Finance?



12. The ‘JanSamarth Portal’ is related to the



13. Which of the following correctly defines a ‘unicorn company’?



14. Consider the following statements with respect to the National Co-operative Exports Limited (NCEL):

Statement-I: NCEL, launched in the cooperative sector, aims to boost exports, benefit farmers, alter crop patterns, provide a global organic product market, strengthen India’s position in biofuel market, and reinforce the cooperative sector.
Statement-II: NCEL will collaborate with the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, the Ministry of External Affairs, and foreign embassies to establish a whole-of-government approach for market linkages.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 



15. Consider the following statements with respect to the National Highway Authority of India (NHAI):

  1. The NHAI was established by an Act of Parliament under the NHAI Act, 1988.
  2. One of the missions of the NHAI is to collect fees on national highways, regulate, and control vehicle plying for proper management.
  3. National highways account for 40 per cent of the road traffic, although they constitute for just 2 per cent of the road network.

How many of the statements given above are correct?



16. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Logistics parks will be attractive for industries and commodities primarily involved in B2C (Business to Consumer) freight movement.
Statement-II: Multimodal logistics parks are anticipated to provide four primary functions, namely, freight aggregation and distribution, multimodal freight transportation, storage and warehousing, and value-added services.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 



17. Consider the following statements with respect to Indian Railways:

  1. India has the third-largest railway network in the world, after the US and China.
  2. Currently, Indian railways operates on three gauges, namely, broad, metre, and narrow.
  3. The Madras Railway Company opened the first line in the south on July 1, 1856, running 63 miles between Vyasarpadi Jeeva Nilayam (Veyasarpandy) and Walajah Road (Arcot).
  4. The Darjeeling Himalayan Railway (DHR) has been designated as a World Heritage Site by UNESCO in 1999.

How many of the statements given above are correct?



18. Consider the following statements with respect to securitisation market:

Statement-I: Securitisation is the process of pooling loans and selling them to a special purpose entity (SPE) that creates securities guaranteed by the loan pool.
Statement-II: A strong securitisation market supports the growth of a secondary loan market and gives financial institutions a market-based way to manage credit risk.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 



19. Consider the following statements with respect to the Waterfall Payment Mechanism:

  1. A Waterfall Payment System is a debt repayment method in which senior lenders receive principal and interest payments from the debtor first, followed by the subordinate lenders.
  2. Debtors cascade their loans, reducing the cost of more expensive loans with larger principal payments and ensuring minimum interest payments for less expensive loans.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?



20. In the context of governance, consider the following:

  1. Encouraging foreign direct investment (FDI) inflows
  2. Privatisation of higher educational institutions
  3. Down-sizing of bureaucracy
  4. Selling/offloading the shares of public sector undertakings

Which of the above can be used as measures to control the fiscal deficit in India?



21. Consider the following pairs:

    Festival   Related state
  1. Gangasagar Mela : Uttar Pradesh
  2. Attugal Pongala : Tamil Nadu
  3. Gaan Ngai : Manipur
  4. Parshuram Kund Mela : Arunachal Pradesh

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?



22. It is the first amphitheatre or pavilion of Asia, rebuilt by Swargadeo Pramatta Singha in 1744 C.E. It is octagonal at base and has two storeys. The roof features an inverted royal Ahom long boat with projecting heads of two small makaras or jalahastis facing in reverse. The adjoining field, Rupohi Pothar, was used for various games during the Ahom rule, and the site contributed to spreading these games to the Ahom kingdom and neighbouring states.
Which of the following sites is described above?



23. Consider the following pairs:

    Author   Book
  1. Narayana Pandita : Ganita Kaumudi
  2. Baudhayana : Shulba Sutra
  3. Lagadha : Vedanga Jyotisha
  4. Pingala : Bhattikavya

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?



24. X is planning to visit UNESCO World Heritage Sites in Delhi and Rajasthan. He will be visiting



25. The First Anglo-Maratha War was concluded by the



26. In the context of Indian history, Askini, Parushni, Vipas, and Gumal are terms related to



27. Consider the following statements:

  1. Original Buddhist religious texts were compiled in Pali.
  2. Sthaviravada is an orthodox school of Jainism.
  3. Jain saint mentioned in the Rigveda is Rishabhanath.
  4. Jainism patronised Ardha-Magadhi.

How many of the statements given above are correct?



28. Consider the following temples:

  1. Kailashnath Temple, Kanchipuram
  2. Sun Temple, Modhera
  3. Brihadeeswara Temple, Thanjavur
  4. Kandariya Mahadeva Temple, Khajuraho

How many of the temples given above are examples of the Nagara style of architecture?



29. Consider the following statements with respect to Indian history:

Statement-I: Magadha, a state in the sixth century BC, became the most powerful and supreme power in North India.
Statement-II: Magadha’s strategic location, along the Ganges and its tributaries, which provided defence, communication, and trade is one of the reasons for its rise and success.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 



30. Which of the following factors were responsible for the rise of different religious sects during the 6th century BCE?

  1. The domineering attitude of the brahmanas towards the common people.
  2. Complexity in social and religious rituals.
  3. The people from the lower strata were becoming influential.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:



31. Consider the following statements:

  1. Monarch was a central figure with complete authority.
  2. Peruntaram were the top officials of the central administration.
  3. Princes served as provincial governors in mandalas.
  4. Mahasabhas controlled all governmental finances.

How many of the statements given above are correct regarding the administration of Cholas?



32. Consider the following statements with regard to Akbar:

  1. He abolished jizyah and pilgrim tax in 1564 and 1563 CE respectively.
  2. He erected the Ibadat Khana for holding religious discussions.
  3. His Din-i-Ilahi was a code of social conduct.He got the Khutba to be read in his name in 1574 CE.

How many of the statements given above are correct?



33. In spite of being fully independent sovereigns, the Sultans of Delhi looked to the Caliph as the source of political authority in order to



34. With respect to Indian history, consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The Congress could not attempt to eliminate the Zamindari system even after assuming the ministerial power.
Statement-II: The provincial ministries did not have enough powers or finances to implement agrarian reforms on a large scale.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 



35. Put the following points in chronological order:

  1. Founding of Satyagraha Sabha
  2. Jallianwala Bagh massacre
  3. All-India Khilafat Conference
  4. Congress acceptance of Non-Cooperation Plan
  5. Chauri-Chaura incident

Select the correct answer using the code given below:



36. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: B.K. Dutt and Bhagat Singh threw a bomb in the Central Legislative Assembly in April 1929.
Statement-II: It was a protest against the Public Safety Bill and the Trade Disputes Bill, which restricted civil liberties and workers’ rights.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 



37. Consider the following statements:

  1. Hypabyssal rocks are formed by solidifying magma at depths below the surface and have large crystal sizes.
  2. Plutonic rocks are formed when magma from below solidifies in cracks and joints, cooling down quicker than hypabyssal rocks.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?



38. Corrie (cirque), fjords, moraines, and drumlins are landforms formed by the



39. Arrange the following points in decreasing order of albedo:

  1. Fresh snow
  2. Grassland
  3. Desert sand
  4. TundraDeciduous forest

Select the correct answer using the code given below:



40. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The regular movement of water in a defined direction over great distances is known as ocean currents.
Statement-II: A gyre is a circular ocean current generated by the wind patterns of Earth and forces created by the planet’s rotation.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 



41. Consider the following statements with respect to the Himalayan and Peninsular rivers:

  1. The Himalayas have a youthful topography with rivers, while Peninsular rivers have a senile topography.
  2. The Himalayan rivers lack superimposed and rejuvenated topography, while Peninsular rivers show rejuvenation and superimposed topography.
  3. The Peninsular rivers create shallow meanders, while Himalayan rivers create numerous sharp meanders and ox-bow lakes in the plains.
  4. The Himalayan rivers have larger command areas compared to the smaller command areas of the Peninsular rivers.

How many of the statements given above are correct?



42. The soil found in the states of Punjab, Rajasthan, and northern Gujarat is covered with a mantle of blown sand and is rich in soluble salts but poor in organic matter. It is sandy, coarse, and alkaline, rich in phosphate, but poor in nitrogen. This soil is derived from adjoining rocks and the coastal regions, with water being the only limiting factor for agricultural purposes. 
Which one of the following soils is described above?



43. Consider the following statements with respect to coffee production:

  1. In India, coffee was introduced by the Muslim Saint Baba Budan Sahib in the 17th century.
  2. Kerala is the leading producer of coffee, followed by Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.
  3. Coffee Robusta is primarily grown at higher elevation compared to Coffee Arabica.

How many of the statements given above are correct?



44. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The western shore of India is narrower than the eastern shore, and it is home to submerged coastal plains.
Statement-II: The western coast provides natural conditions for the construction of ports and harbours due to its submergence.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 



45. Consider the following statements:

  1. It is a weight-losing raw material.
  2. It cannot be stored for long, as it loses its content.
  3. It cannot be transported over long distances because that results in higher production costs and drying up of the raw material.
  4. The crop is the second largest agro-based industry in India and has been in existence since ancient times.

Which of the following crops is described in the above statements?



46. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: A dispersed settlement consists of isolated huts or hamlets in remote jungles or small hills with farms or pastures.
Statement-II: The dispersion is often due to the fragmented terrain and limited land resources of habitable areas.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 



47. Consider the following ecological pyramids:

  1. Pyramid of biomass of an aquatic ecosystem
  2. Pyramid of biomass of a terrestrial ecosystem
  3. Pyramid of numbers of a pond ecosystem
  4. Pyramid of numbers of a tree ecosystem

Which of the pyramids given above are upright?



48. The National Park is a 23-square-kilometre area of lush green vegetation and impenetrable pristine forests. Located on the international border between India and Myanmar, it was declared a Tiger Reserve in 1983. The park is home to the world’s only four large cat species, the tiger, leopard, snow leopard, and clouded leopard, as well as several lesser cats. The park is also home to the hoolock gibbon, the only ape species found in India.
The above paragraph is the correct description of



49. Which of the following statements correctly defines the term ‘red tide’?



50. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Wetlands are areas of marsh, fen, peat land, or water, artificial or natural, permanent or temporary, with static or flowing water, including marine areas with depths not exceeding ten metres at low tide.
Statement-II: They provide suitable habitats for endangered species, endemic plants, insects, and invertebrates, as well as migratory birds and waders.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 



51. With reference to ‘green funds’ in India, consider the following statements:

  1. It is the amount of money deposited as the compensation for diversity of forest land for non-forest purpose.
  2. The Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act 2016 ensures proper utilisation of these funds.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?



52. Consider the following statements:

  1. The hoolock gibbon is unique to the northeastern region of India.
  2. Nilgiri Tahr is endemic to Western Ghats of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?



53. Consider the following statements regarding the mechanisation of agriculture:

  1. It will lead to higher per-unit productivity.
  2. It will lead to a higher dose of employment.
  3. It will lead to higher per-unit cost of operation.

How many of the statements given above are correct?



54. Owls can see and hunt in near darkness. Which of the following features help them do so?

  1. A large proportion of rod cells
  2. Wide pupils to let in as much light as possible
  3. The presence of membrane ‘tapetum lucidum’ on the retina
  4. Echolocation

Select the correct answer using the code given below:



55. Which of the following may be stated as biodiversity conservation strategies?

  1. Expansion of the protected area network
  2. Creation of adequate data on species diversity, population, location, and extent of habitat, major threats to different species, etc., and monitoring changes in these aspects over time
  3. Limiting captive breeding and species reintroduction
  4. Generating maps of the protected areas showing their contiguity with the existing reserve and protected forests

Select the correct answer using the code given below:



56. Consider the following statements with respect to the Montreal Protocol:

  1. It is an international treaty, committed to regulating the transboundary movements of hazardous waste material.
  2. It was adopted on September 16, 1987.
  3. Developing and developed countries have equal but differentiated responsibilities under the protocol.
  4. Article 5 of the Montreal Protocol is related to the special situation of the developed countries.

How many of the statements given above are correct?



57. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The Environment Protection Act (EPA), 1986 empowers the central government to prevent environmental pollution and address unique problems across the country.
Statement-II: The EPA, 1986 was enacted in response to the Bhopal Gas Tragedy.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 



58. Consider the following conventions:

  1. The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD)
  2. The Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES)
  3. The Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety (CPB)
  4. The Minamata Convention on Mercury (MCM)
  5. The Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (SCPOP)

Which of the conventions given above has been signed by India?



59. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The National Water Policy was adopted in 2016 by the National Water Resources Council.
Statement-II: The National Water Policy recommends a National Water Framework Law and the establishment of a Water Regulatory Authority in each state.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 



60. India Climate Energy Dashboard (ICED) is released by the



61. Consider the following pairs:

    Space probe   Feature
  1. Juno : Studies the gravity field, magnetic field, and polar magnetosphere of Jupiter.
  2. Cassini Flyby : Produces the most detailed global colour portrait of Jupiter.
  3. Deep Space 2 : Investigates Moon a low polar orbit.
  4. Perseverance : Explores the past and present conditions of habitability, climate, and geology of Mars.

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?



62. Consider the following statements with respect to planets:

  1. Venus, Earth, Mars, and Jupiter are terrestrial planets.
  2. Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune are Jovian planets.
  3. All planets revolve clockwise with the exception of Venus and Uranus.
  4. All planets have satellites with the exception of Mercury.

How many of the statements given above are correct?



63. Consider the following space probes:

  1. Mariner 4
  2. Viking 1
  3. Atatsuki
  4. Vega 2

Which of the space probes given above have made a successful attempt on Mars?



64. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: A tube light of 40 watts produces more light than a 100-watt incandescent bulb.
Statement-II: The majority of electricity in a tube light is converted into light as no heating is involved.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 



65. In eye donation, which one of the following parts of a donor’s eye is utilised?



66. A man decided to have a cup of coffee. He took a cup of water and put it in the microwave oven to heat it up (something that he had done numerous times before). He wanted to bring the water to a boil. When the timer shut off the oven, he removed the cup from the oven. As he looked into the cup, he noted that the water was not boiling, but suddenly the water in the cup ‘blew up’ into his face. The cup remained intact until he threw it down. His whole face was blistered. Why did this happen?

  1. The water does not boil in the microwave.
  2. Microwaved water and other liquids can get superheated and they do not always bubble on reaching the boiling point.
  3. When the superheated liquid is moved, bubbles are caused to rapidly form and expel the hot liquid.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:



67. Consider the following statements:

  1. Trichlorofluoromethane, or CFC-11, is one of the most abundant ozone-depleting gases.
  2. CFC-11 is banned under the global Montreal Protocol.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?



68. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The bioeconomy is the economy’s share derived from biological resources, including plants and microorganisms.
Statement-II: The Indian bioeconomy contributed roughly 4.25 per cent of India’s GDP in 2024.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 



69. Consider the following pairs:

    Genetic disease   Mutation
  A. Sickle cell anaemia : Extra X-chromo-some in males
  B. Down’s syndrome : Substitution of an amino acid
  C. Klinefelter’s syndrome : Extra chromo-some 21
  D. Turner’s syndrome : Missing X-chro-mosome in females

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?



70. Which of the following can be stated with reference to the LED lamps?

  1. They emit no infrared or ultraviolet radiation.
  2. They typically have no or at most negligible amounts of hazardous substances within the scope of that compliance (lead, cadmium, mercury).
  3. They turn on within 20 to 25 seconds after they are switched on.
  4. They do not tend to emit the so-called ‘Full Spectrum’ light.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:



71. In sports science, which of the following correctly matches the test with its key design parameter?

    Test   Characteristic feature
  1. Bronco Test    : Five sets of 20 m–40 m–60 m shuttles completed continuously
  2. Yo-Yo Test    : Shuttle runs between 20 m markers with timed recovery breaks
  3. Beep Test    : Running at progressively increasing speeds guided by audio beeps

Select the correct answer using the code given below:



72. The first World Food Prize was awarded to



73. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The United Nations Commission on International Trade Law (UNCITRAL) is the United Nations system’s primary legal organisation in the subject of international trade law.
Statement-II: UNCITRAL is a key player in the modernisation and harmonisation of international trade law, utilising legislative and non-legislative tools in various commercial law areas.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 



74. Which of the following countries have signed the Treaty of Peace, Friendship and Cooperation with India?

  1. Russia
  2. Nepal
  3. Bhutan
  4. Switzerland

Select the correct answer using the code given below:



75. The Andean Community (CAN) is a regional group consisting of four member countries—



76. The ENCORE Nodal app is developed by the



77. With reference to the Mutual Legal Assistance Treaty (MLAT), consider the following statements:

  1. MLATs are formal agreements between countries that facilitate the exchange of evidence and assistance in criminal investigations and prosecutions.
  2. In India, the Ministry of Home Affairs is the nodal authority responsible for handling MLAT requests.
  3. MLATs can be invoked only through Interpol communication channels.

How many of the statements given above are correct?




78. With reference to the transition of Small Finance Banks (SFBs) to Universal Banks in India, consider the following statements:

  1. The SFB must have scheduled status with a satisfactory track record of at least five years.
  2. The SFB should be listed on a recognised stock exchange with a minimum net worth of Rs 1,000 crore as at the end of the previous quarter (audited).
  3. The SFB should have net profit in the last two financial years and gross NPA and net NPA not exceeding 3 per cent and 1 per cent, respectively.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:



79. With respect to S-400 missile system, consider the following statements:

  1. It is a long-range, surface-to-air anti-missile defence system, designed to serve as a shield over a specific area developed by the US.
  2. The S-400 is a powerful weapon capable of engaging various types of aircraft, unmanned aerial vehicles, cruise missiles, and ballistic missile attacks.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?



80. X is planning for beach holidays in India, but he insists that he will be visiting only those states and union territories which have Blue Flag-certified beaches. With respect to that, consider the following states and union territories:

  1. Maharashtra
  2. Goa
  3. Kerala
  4. Diu
  5. Tamil Nadu

How many administrative regions will X be visiting overall?



81. Which of the following has launched a new sounding rocket to study a 20,000-year-old supernova remnant in the Cygnus Loop under the mission INFUSE?



82. Which of the following are matters on which a constitutional amendment is possible only with the ratification of the legislatures of not less than one-half of the states?

  1. Election of the president
  2. Representation of states in Parliament
  3. Any of the lists in the 7th Schedule
  4. Abolition of the legislative council of a state

Select the correct answer using the code given below:



83. Consider the following pairs:

    Term   Meaning
  1. Point of Order : Raised if the proceedings of the House do not follow normal rules
  2. Censure Motion : Moved against the government to criticise some act
  3. Privilege Motion : Moved by a member if he feels that a minister has committed a breach of privilege of the House
  4. Calling Attention Motion : Made with prior permission of the speaker to call the attention of a minister to a matter of urgent public importance

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?



84. Which of the following statements regarding the advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court are correct?

  1. It is binding on the Supreme Court to give its opinion on any matter referred to it by the president.
  2. The full bench of the Supreme Court hears any reference made to it under its power of advisory jurisdiction.
  3. The opinion given by the Supreme Court on a reference under advisory jurisdiction is not binding on the government.
  4. Not more than one reference at a time can be made to the Supreme Court under its power of advisory jurisdiction.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:



85. Which of the following is/are correct with regard to the office of Attorney-General of India?

  1. He is a member of the cabinet.
  2. He can speak in either House of Parliament and vote on any issue.
  3. He must be qualified to become a judge of the Supreme Court.
  4. His remuneration is fixed by Parliament.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:



86. Consider the following statements:

  1. Parliament has the right to make laws relating to matters concerning election to Parliament as well as state legislatures.
  2. The strength of the Election Commission is specified in the Constitution.
  3. All disputes regarding elections are decided by the president.
  4. Booth capturing has been defined in Section 135 A of the Representation of People Act, 1951.

Which of the statements given above are correct?



87. During a proclamation of emergency due to the breakdown of constitutional machinery in a state, the president can

  1. assume all powers vested in and exercisable by the governor.
  2. declare that the powers of the state legislature shall be exercised by Parliament.
  3. assume certain powers of the high courts.
  4. suspend by order any or all Fundamental Rights except those under Articles 20 and 21.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:



88. Which of the following emerges clearly from the Preamble to the Indian Constitution?

  1. Date when the Constitution was enacted
  2. The ideals that were to be achieved
  3. The system of government
  4. The source of authority

Select the correct answer using the code given below:



89. Consider the following statements:

  1. Plea bargaining is an arrangement in which the prosecutor and the defendant agree to settle the case if the defendant pleads guilty.
  2. The e-Courts project, an initiative of the central government, includes video-conferencing of the entire proceedings of a case.
  3. The M.M. Punchhi Commission Report (2010) on centre-state relations calls for abolition of the Planning Commission.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?



90. Match the following columns of situations and jurisdictions of the Supreme Court:

    Situation   Jurisdiction
  A. A person acquitted in a lower court but sentenced to death by the high court   1. Original
  B. A dispute arising out of a covenant entered into before the commencement of the Constitution   2. Appellate
  C. A dispute between two states of the Union   3. Advisory

Select the correct answer using the code given below:



91. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The International Competition Network (ICN) is the only global organisation dedicated solely to competition law enforcement, comprising members from national and multinational competition authorities.
Statement-II: The ICN does not have a rule-making function, but when consensus is reached on best practices from projects, individual competition authorities decide on implementation methods.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 



92. Which of the following Asian countries have ever hosted the Olympics?



93. Consider the following pairs:

    Exercise   Country
  1. Harimau Shakti : India and Malaysia
  2. Dharma Guardian : India and Bangladesh
  3. Table Top : India and Japan
  4. Indra : India and Russia

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?




 

94. Dr Balram Singh vs Union of India judgment is related to



95. Under the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013, the sexual harassment includes

  1. physical contact and advances.
  2. a demand or request for sexual favours.
  3. making sexually coloured remarks.
  4. showing pornography.
  5. humiliating treatment likely to affect health or safety.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:



96. The National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT) can hear appeal against the orders of the

  1. National Company Law Tribunal.
  2. Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India.
  3. Competition Commission of India.
  4. National Financial Reporting Authority.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:



97. The Jaya Jaitly Committee recommended that the



98. Consider the following statements:

  1. The Automated Permanent Academic Account Registry (APAAR) is a unique ID system designed to provide special identification to all the students in India from childhood.
  2. APAAR will facilitate access to DigiLocker and allow students to store important documents and achievements for future use. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?



99. Consider the following statements with respect to Electoral bonds:

  1. Electoral bonds are interest-free money instruments available for purchase from specific State Bank of India (SBI) branches only.
  2. These bonds are sold in denomination of Rs 10,000, Rs 10 lakh, and Rs 1 crore only.
  3. The instrument is considered anonymous as the donor’s name and other information are not entered.
  4. The number of electoral bonds a person or company can purchase is limited.

How many of the statements given above are correct?



100. Consider the following statements with respect to the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2021:

  1. The right to seek abortion up to 20 weeks pregnancy is available to all women without any consultation.
  2. The right to seek abortion for 20–24 weeks pregnancy is determined by at least two medical practitioners.
  3. The right to seek abortion beyond 24 weeks pregnancy will only be available on the grounds of foetal abnormalities, based on the advice of a medical board.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?



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